Protagoras - or Plato?

Protagoras - or Plato? 115 Protagoras - or Plato? JOSEPH P. MAGUIRE n an earlier article,' I argued that Plato had manipulated the discus- t sion in Republic I to move '1 hrasymachus from a political position he may in fact have held2 to the un-Thrasymachean moral position he himself wanted to consider in the rest of ?ce?ublic.3 The move is made in 343 c 3 by linguistic bridging; i.e., by juxtaposing (1) "advantage of the stronger" and (3) "another's good" as if they-were synonymous,4 though (1 )- as interpreted by (2) "obedience to the ruler's law"- is in fact quite incompatible with (3); and it is only with (3) that the moral discussion can be opened. The reason is that it alone can apply to everyone, ruler as well as subject, and in it alone "justice" means something like "acceptance of equality" rather than simply "obedience to (any) law", which is called "justice" -by the ruler. In the light of this apparently cavalier attitude by Plato toward historical accuracy in using for his own purposes the doctrine of the Sophist, Thrasymachus, it seems worthwhile to ask whether he is similarly cavalier in using the doctrines of other historical personages; and if http://www.deepdyve.com/assets/images/DeepDyve-Logo-lg.png Phronesis Brill

Protagoras - or Plato?

Phronesis, Volume 18 (1-2): 115 – Jan 1, 1973

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Publisher
Brill
Copyright
© 1973 Koninklijke Brill NV, Leiden, The Netherlands
ISSN
0031-8868
eISSN
1568-5284
DOI
10.1163/156852873X00096
Publisher site
See Article on Publisher Site

Abstract

115 Protagoras - or Plato? JOSEPH P. MAGUIRE n an earlier article,' I argued that Plato had manipulated the discus- t sion in Republic I to move '1 hrasymachus from a political position he may in fact have held2 to the un-Thrasymachean moral position he himself wanted to consider in the rest of ?ce?ublic.3 The move is made in 343 c 3 by linguistic bridging; i.e., by juxtaposing (1) "advantage of the stronger" and (3) "another's good" as if they-were synonymous,4 though (1 )- as interpreted by (2) "obedience to the ruler's law"- is in fact quite incompatible with (3); and it is only with (3) that the moral discussion can be opened. The reason is that it alone can apply to everyone, ruler as well as subject, and in it alone "justice" means something like "acceptance of equality" rather than simply "obedience to (any) law", which is called "justice" -by the ruler. In the light of this apparently cavalier attitude by Plato toward historical accuracy in using for his own purposes the doctrine of the Sophist, Thrasymachus, it seems worthwhile to ask whether he is similarly cavalier in using the doctrines of other historical personages; and if

Journal

PhronesisBrill

Published: Jan 1, 1973

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